How would you calculate area underneath the curve for the following integral?
ʃ √(1 - x^2) dx (evaluated from x = 0 to x = 1)
You take a quick glance and realize this integral is not quickly (if at all) solved by u substitution nor integration by parts, and is not in a form which invokes the use of an inverse trigonometric function as an antiderivative. What do we do here?
Recalling our studies from precalculus, we may remember the equation for a circle of radius 1, centered at (0, 0) is:
x^2 + y^2 = 1
Note that the expression inside the integral above (first bold expression) is what one would get if we solved the second bold expression for y.
y^2 = 1 - x^2
y = ±√(1 - x^2)
Evaluated from x = 0 to x = 1, we notice the integral above is simply the area of the unit circle in the first quadrant. Therefore, since we recall from geometry the area of a circle is equal to πr^2, this means the area of the unit circle is simply equal to π. One-fourth of this area, as the integral above asks for, would be π/4
Therefore, this calculus problem was solved using geometry and precalculus. The more tools in your repertoire, the better off you will be at problem solving!
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